“Peter called Jesus God and Savior”

Maybe so, maybe not; it depends on whether 2 Peter 1:1 is or is not an exception to Sharp’s rule. There are exceptions, many in the ante-Nicene literature, particularly in reference to God and his Son, which strongly suggests that the rule is in need of revision.

Even if he is called god there, that no more supports a Trinitarian understanding of God and Christ than does the fact that Moses was called “God to Pharaoh” at Ex. 7:1, and “god and king of the whole nation” by Philo, a monotheistic Jew, in On the Life of Moses I.

See: https://www.earlyjewishwritings.com/text/philo/book24.html

The fact is that ancient Jewish monotheism was more like monolatry than like our modern, strict counterpart. Divine titles were applied to various agents of God in pretty much all forms of Jewish literature that existed around the time the biblical books were written, including the Bible itself, the Dead Sea Scrolls (DSS), Philo, and the Midrashim. In addition to the texts above about Moses, there is a midrash in which the Israelites at Sinai are called gods; depending on the translation one favors, human kings may have been called “O God” and “Mighty God” at Ps. 45 and Isa. 9; angels are called gods in a number of texts, and in the DSS; the members of the Divine Council are called gods at Ps. 82; based on most reconstructions of the text of 11QMelch, Melchizedek wasn’t just called “God” but “your God” in a context in which the antecedent of “your” is the Jewish community. This text was found in the library at Qumran, which was probably owned by a sect of hyper-strict Essenes! He also had a YHWH or God (ELOHIM) text applied to him.

One often finds a strange disconnect in the writings of so many scholars and religious commentators in that while they often discuss the uncontroversial application of divine titles to agents of God in the Bible and in the literature of the period, they fail to recognize that it is precisely because Jesus is God’s agent — his cosmic power-of-attorney — that we find divine titles applied to him.

Once we recognize (a) the flexible use of such divine titles in the biblical period among monotheistic Jews, and (b) the contexts in which such applications were considered appropriate, then we come to realize something we might not have expected:

Not only is it not surprising to find divine titles applied to Jesus in the New Testament, but in light of his unique status as God’s agent par excellence, it would have been downright shocking had we found that such titles were NOT applied to him!

Someone on Facebook asked: Why Didn’t Jesus Rebuke Thomas for Calling him God?

In response, I’ll first point out that it is far from certain that Thomas did call Jesus God. There are three logical possibilities with respect to the interpretation of John 20:28:

1. Thomas called Jesus Lord and God
2. Thomas called Jesus Lord and his Father God
3. Thomas called the Father Lord and God

But let’s grant, for the sake of argument, that Jesus is called QEOS by Thomas. If one assumes that such is the case, then I would respond to the FB poster’s question this way:

Why didn’t the readers of 11QMelch correct the writer who, on most reconstructions of the text, wrote that Melchizedek is “your God” in a context in which the antecedent of “your” is the faithful Jewish community? It’s interesting to note that if people were comfortable with having Melchizedek called their God” collectively, then it logically follows that they wouldn’t have had a problem referring to Melchizedek as “my God” individually.

Why didn’t the readers of Exodus 7:1 correct the writer who wrote that God made Moses “God to Pharoah”? Notice that the “as” that some translators insert isn’t in the Hebrew.

Why didn’t the readers of Philo, a monotheistic Jew, correct Philo for calling Moses “god and king” of the nation?

Why didn’t the readers of Psalm 45:6 and Isa. 9:6 correct the writers who wrote about earthly kings who where possibly described as “O God” and “Mighty God,” depending on the translation one favors?

Why didn’t the readers of the Dead Sea Scrolls correct the writers who, in a number of places, refer to angels as “gods”?

Why didn’t the readers of Psalm 82 correct the writer, who spoke about heavenly beings, members of a “Divine Council,” as “gods”? Interestingly, it is this very text that Jesus quotes in his own defense when his adversaries charge that he made himself QEOS!

The answer to all of these questions is the same as the answer to yours: Because the application of divine titles was more flexible in the ancient world than it is today.

Such titles were applied to various agents of God in pretty much all forms of Jewish literature that existed at the time the New Testament was written. One often finds a strange disconnect in the writings of so many religious commentators in that while they often discuss the uncontroversial application of divine titles to agents of God in the Bible and in the literature of the period, they fail to recognize that it is precisely because Jesus is God’s agent — his cosmic power-of-attorney — that we find divine titles applied to him.

Once we recognize (a) the flexible use of such divine titles in the biblical period among monotheistic Jews, and (b) the contexts in which such applications were considered appropriate, then we come to realize something we might not have expected:

Not only is it not surprising to find divine titles applied to Jesus in the New Testament, but in light of his unique status as God’s agent par excellence, it would have been downright shocking had we found that such titles were NOT applied to him!

John 1:1c and Defining “Qualitative” Nouns: Harner, Dixon, and Hartley vs. Objective Reality

(I had posted this on Facebook a while back and decided it belongs here.)

Someone on another forum recently brought up the question about how one should define a “qualitative” noun, and referred to his findings in studying linguistics that they are nouns that name qualities. I think that would be the necessary definition if one adds the additional feature that informs the Trinitarian’s objective: (1) Quality is stressed AND (2) the indefinite article is to be ruled out as inappropriate. That’s what Trinitarians are really chasing, as they want the text to convey that the Logos is divine by nature, but they simultaneously need it to be inappropriate to include the indefinite article, or at least to have little statistical support for doing so.

My illustration about a quarterback who is called “a MAN” in contexts in which the meaning conveyed is that he is VERY manly demonstrates that a descriptive use, even an emphatically descriptive use, doesn’t rule out indefiniteness. Indeed, the descriptiveness that we infer depends on the noun’s indefiniteness in context. If even emphatic descriptiveness depends on a noun’s indefiniteness, then it can’t be the noun’s meaning to the exclusion of indefiniteness (contra Paul Dixon). As someone put it so many years ago, it seems that certain Trinitarians are playing a game of smoke and mirrors, and gullible people are falling for it, maybe by the millions, because some of them are in positions in which people look to them as authorities. This is why those who teach bear a heavy responsibility.

Decades ago, after reading the odd, theologically motivated arguments on offer from folks like Harner, Dixon, Hartley, etc., I started plowing through books on grammar and linguistics and also wrote grammarians and linguists at college in an effort to find out if anyone other than Trinitarians were saying the sorts of things Trinitarians say about how count nouns function. I found zero support for their contentions in the writings of secular authorities.

In fact, I found that the only people on the planet who are even talking about “qualitative” count nouns are Trinitarians, those who are influenced by them, and those who are interacting with them. In my experience at least, no one else is talking about “qualitative” count nouns. I think that is remarkably revealing.

So I asked myself, “What is the origin of that quirky description?” and I think I may know the answer. It seems to go back to the way theologians were talking in the pre-Colwell era. Harner wasn’t a trained linguist, and so when he decided to do damage control by trying to come up with a solution to the theological problem introduced by the collapse of the Colwell narrative, he may have remembered that book by Arthur Wakefield Slaten entitled Qualitative Nouns in the Pauline Epistles and their Translation in the Revised Edition, and he had his hook. Yes, nouns can be “qualitative,” he may have thought, and maybe that’s the answer to the problem!

Then Dixon came along almost immediately and wrote his DTS thesis, and he ran with the ball Harner put in play, as did Hartley after him, and Wallace as well. However, Harner’s article is highly flawed, not only in the sense that it’s an apology for a Trinitarian view and not a serious piece of linguistics research, and not only in the sense that demonstrably invalid assertions are made, but in the sense that he opened the door to compelling criticism and counterargument against his solution by listing the relevant verses in John’s Gospel, many of which undermine his narrative in that nouns that are actually comparable to QEOS at John 1:1c are all rendered into English by translators with the indefinite article. Oops! Translation practice is inconsistent with apologetically motivated claims.

People who read his article critically can look those verses up for themselves and see how translators render comparable count nouns in a Colwell construction that are not definite, and in doing so will see that every single one of them is rendered into English with the indefinite article, with the one lonely exception: QEOS at John 1:1c.

So Dixon may very well have thought: Oh, oh, Houston, we have a problem! And his solution was truly remarkable. What he did was observe something that is objectively true and then restructure it to fit his subjective theological needs. Specifically, he observed that indefinite count nouns are used in primarily two ways:

1. To categorize

2. To describe ( = “qualitatively”)

Then he arbitrarily and subjectively took the 2nd use and put it in an unnatural category of its own, thereby restructuring objective reality to conform to his subjective theological needs.

With his arbitrary restructuring, count nouns are asserted to function this way:

1. Indefinite nouns = nouns which are only used to categorize, apparently with the implication that these can be rendered with the indefinite article.

2. Qualitative nouns = nouns that stress quality and which are not indefinite, apparently with the implication that the indefinite article shouldn’t be used with nouns in this category.

If you read Dixon’s thesis, you’ll find that he offered no linguistically defensible reasons for this arbitrary subjective restructuring. Why did he do it? He apparently did this because he needed to fix the problem that Harner introduced when he referenced the Johannine texts that clearly undermine the entire approach to a solution. In other words, again, it appears to me that Dixon was doing damage control with respect to Harner just as Harner was doing damage control with respect to the collapse of the Colwell narrative.

It seems that Hartley also noticed the theological problem that Harner clumsily introduced and took another approach to a “solution”: Using mass nouns to inform our understanding of count nouns. His entire thesis therefore appears to be one long category error. In my judgment, the reason he tries to rely on the function of mass nouns to support his take on QEOS at 1:1c is precisely because mass nouns don’t take the indefinite article, and, as some here may know, that’s what this is really about: Trinitarians not only need QEOS to be “qualitative” but they need some means of supposedly invalidating or at least marginalizing the “a god” rendering.

With that long-winded intro, here’s my take on “qualitative” nouns in the context of the discussion with Trinitarians about John 1:1c:

1. I will often put “qualitative” in scare quotes because, as far as I’ve been able to determine, linguists don’t use that terminology.

2. If by “qualitative” we mean nouns that convey quality, nature, or characteristics, but which don’t take the indefinite article, then qualitative nouns are qualities, which are non-count. Only mass nouns function this way, not count nouns, and when nouns that are typically count appear in contexts in which they do function this way, it’s precisely because they are functioning as mass nouns, not as count nouns, in context.

3. If by “qualitative” we mean any noun that is being used descriptively or to stress nature or characteristics in a given context, then both definite and indefinite count nouns can also be so used (with definite nouns this typically happens when the term is used non-literally, e.g. “That man is the Devil himself!”). Moreover, when count nouns (and proper names) are used to stress such a sense, that sense actually depends on the noun’s definiteness or indefiniteness. Since the descriptive stress depends on the noun’s definiteness or indefiniteness, it logically follows that it cannot be the noun’s meaning to the exclusion of definiteness or indefiniteness.

4. Much of the confusion that has been introduced to the dialogue has occurred because people mistakenly assume, as Dixon apparently did, that indefiniteness, “qualitativeness,” and definiteness are interchangeable with meaning itself, when, in reality, these are more like syntactical features that contribute to meaning, but aren’t meaning in and of themselves.

In short, whether wittingly or unwittingly, Trinitarian apologists seem to have been engaged in prestidigitation in an effort to avoid the sense of QEOS at John 1:1c, not to accurately capture and convey it in English. The NEB’s risible rendering, which I contend isn’t even possible, grammatically, is a classic example of this mentality at work: “what God was, the Word was.” That wording creates a question rather than giving an answer: Oh, and what was that? It ultimately results in a statement that is so ambiguous that Trinitarians, Arians, and Socinians alike find it theologically acceptable even if it’s grammatically unacceptable.

See also: https://kazlandblog.wordpress.com/2019/10/07/what-god-was-the-word-was/

The Ancient Idiom of Non-Exclusive Exclusivity to Express Incomparability: Why Do we Forget about this Idiom when Reading Hebrews 1?

Mike Heiser has demonstrated that exclusive language was used in the ancient world to stress incomparability and not necessarily to literally exclude absolutely (e.g. Zeph. 2:15; Isa. 47:8, 10). Paula Fredriksen has made similar comments, pointing out that the “…very idea of a highest God, theos hypsitsos, is intrinsically comparative.” (YouTube lecture)

Doesn’t Hebrews 1 seem to be a rather natural context to infer this idiom at work? It is certainly comparative, and if the exclusivity employed is of the same idiomatic form found in other texts, then the point wouldn’t be that Jesus is no angel, but that he is no ordinary angel. Can anyone think of a biblical angel who could be called “no ordinary angel”?

I can, and it’s the same angel that Jesus may have indirectly identified himself as when he referred to himself as the Son of Man.

The Ontological Subordinationism of Origen

“A corollary to Origen’s identification of Christ with the second divine hypostasis of Platonism is the Son’s inferiority to the Father. As an emanation outward from the utter simplicity of the Father toward the utter multiplicity of the world, the second hypostasis is, necessarily, less perfect than the first…Because of this, Origen, although he insisted on Christ’s divinity and utter difference from all lesser beings, was unwilling to ascribe to the Son the same dignity he ascribed to the Father. The Son as a mediating hypostasis is inferior to the Father and represents a lower stage in the cosmological scale. Only the Father, Origen said, is truly God; the Son is God only by participation in the Father. He found in the opening verse of the Gospel of John a grammatical construction that confirmed his evaluation of the Son’s lesser divinity. There the biblical author makes use of the Greek definite article in referring to God but leaves off the article in referring to Christ, the Word, as God…This tendency to subordinate the Son to the Father caused Origen no trouble theologically during his lifetime since most Christians took such a subordination for granted. Later, when the development of trinitarian theology in the fourth century made subordinationism untenable, it brought Origen’s theology into disrepute.”

~ Joseph Wilson Trigg, Origen: The Bible and Philosophy in the Third-Century Church (Atlanta: John Knox Press, 1983), pp 98-99

Taken from: https://restitutio.org/2019/04/12/the-trinity-before-nicea/#_ftn18

There are three noteworthy observations made by Trigg:

1. Origen’s subordinationism was ontological, not merely functional.

2. Origen’s ontological subordinationism was taken for granted in his time, and was only deemed heretical later.

3. Origen’s understanding of John 1:1 is closer to what is held by JWs than it is to what is held by Trinitarians.

Peter Schäfer on Two Gods in Heaven

Scholars who have studied the two-powers theology have determined that it emerged from within Judaism(s).

For example, Peter Schäfer has said that:

“I would like to close by putting forward the thesis that it is likely that the ‘one like a human being’ or the Son of Man in Daniel 7 is the highest angelic figure distinct from God, presumably the archangel Michael. Elevated to a godlike status, this angelic figure becomes the origin and point of departure for the later binitarian figures who will reach their culmination and end point in Metatron.” (Two Gods in Heaven: Jewish Concepts of God in Antiquity), p. 24

Notice how Schäfer defines “binitarian”:

“The title of this examination, Two Gods in Heaven, is pointedly based on the rabbinic phrase ‘two powers in heaven’ (sheteirashuyyot), which clearly implies two divine authorities side by side. This does not refer to two gods who fight each other in a dualistic sense (‘good god’ versus ‘evil god’), as we are familiar with primarily from Gnosticism, but rather two gods who rule side by side and together–in different degrees of agreement and correlation. Scholarship has developed the term ‘binitarian’ to describe this juxtaposition of two powers or gods, analogous to the term ‘trinitarian’ associated with Christian dogma.” (ibid), p. 6

It’s worth noting that, to the early Christians, Jesus was the Son of Man. 

Paula Fredriksen on Philippians 2

“The Greek, however, does not quite correspond to the RSV’s English. In Philippians 2.6, Jesus is not ‘in the form of the [high] God,’ but in the form of ‘[a] god.’ Jesus does not demur from equality with God the Father, but from ‘god-status’ or, close to Paul’s word choice, equality with ‘[a] god.’ The god who exalts Jesus in verse 9, by contrast, is the high god (ho theos, the god), referred to as ‘God the Father’ in verse 11. The conventions of English capitalization–‘God’ with the upper-case G in all clauses–obscure Paul’s Greek. Paul distinguishes between degrees of divinity here. Jesus is not ‘God.'” (Paul: The Pagan’s Apostle), Kindle location 2654

James D.G. Dunn on John 1:1

“That John may distinguish two uses of the title from each other is often noted but too little appreciated. The distinction is possibly made by the use of the definite article with theos and the absence of the definite article in the same sentence…As we see in Philo, in his exposition of Genesis 31.13 (De Somniis 1.227-30)…John’s Gospel does not attempt similar clarification in his use of God/god for the Logos…But in possibly making (or allowing to be read) a distinction between God (ho theos) and the Logos (theos) the Evangelist may have had in mind a similar qualification in the divine status to be recognized for Christ. Jesus was God, in that he made God known, in that God made himself known in and through him, in that he was God’s effective outreach to his creation and to his people. But he was not God in himself.” (Did the First Christians Worship Jesus?: The New Testament Evidence), pp. 134 & 135

The Divine Name in the New Testament: It Ultimately Comes Down to 4 Questions

Whether or not one will conclude that the divine name was included in the original New Testament writings really comes down to four fundamental questions:

1. Is the New Testament inspired by the same God who inspired the Old Testament?

2. Which is true: (a) God preserved his word while humans failed to in one important respect or (b) humans preserved God’s word but God failed to in one important respect?

3. Is God capricious?

4. Should our commitment be (a) to the manuscript copies that have been preserved, most of which are late and unquestionably reveal modifications and tampering, or (b) to the God who inspired the originals?

Anyone who answers “Yes” to 1, “a” to 2, “No” to 3, and “b” to 4, should join JWs in our commitment to the restoration of the divine name to the New Testament.